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Compaq/Oracle 8i I&P with Windows NT : HP0-054 Exam
Product Description
Exam Number/Code: HP0-054
Exam Name: Compaq/Oracle 8i I&P with Windows NT
Questions Type: Multiple choice,
“Compaq/Oracle 8i I&P with Windows NT”, also known as HP0-054 exam, is a HP certification.
Preparing for the HP0-054 exam? Searching HP0-054 Test Questions, HP0-054 Practice Exam, HP0-054 Dumps?
With the complete collection of questions and answers, Pass4sure has assembled to take you through 136 Q&A to your HP0-054 Exam preparation. In the HP0-054 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in HP Certification helping to ready you for your successful HP Certification.
Questions and Answers : 136 Q&A
Updated: May 6th , 2008
1. Which one of the following is a major component of the Oracle8i engine, and
is considered the embodiment of the Oracle engine?
a. Process
b. Data files c. Instance
d. Database manager
Answer: c
2. A database can be accessed by one or more Oracle instances.
? True
? False
Answer: True
3. Which one of the following statements best describes a characteristic of background processes?
a. Allow system access to the database to perform a variety of administrative functions
b. Work on user’s behalf and perform user related functions such as transaction processing
c. Perform basic database functions such as database server monitoring and recovery.
d. Correlate to the number of connected users
Answer: c
Rev. 0.21 SAG – 11
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
4. Which one of the following processes is the only process that can write data
to the data files?
a. ARCH process b. DBWR process c. LGWR process d. CKPT process Answer: b
5. Oracle processes run as threads within the one Windows NT process created
by the Oracle instance.
? True
? False
Answer: True
6. Dirty buffer writing activity is a responsibility of which of the following
Oracle processes?
a. CKPT process
b. Shadow process c. DBWR process d. LGWR process Answer: c
7. Which statement best describes when the redo LGWR process writes to the
redo log file?
a. When a transaction is complete
b. When the redo log buffer is three quarters full c. Every ten seconds
d. When the DBWR process writes modified buffers to disk
Answer: d
8. Which one of the following processes is responsible for monitoring and recovering transactions in a distributed (two-phase commit) environment?
a. SMON process b. PMON process c. RECO process d. ARCH process e. LCKn process Answer: c
SAG – 12 Rev. 0.21
Self-Assessment Guide
9. Which one of the following processes is responsible for cleaning up
abnormally terminated processes and user connections?
a. SMON process b. PMON process c. RECO process d. ARCH process e. LCKn process Answer: b
10. The server processes are often referred to as shadow processes, because they
shadow the user and database operations. They are responsible for the actual execution of the transactions except for:
a. Parsing and executing SQL statements within the transactions.
b. Retrieving data from the database buffer cache (cache hits).
c. Issuing physical read requests for data buffers that are not present in the database buffer cache (cache misses).
d. Changing data buffers as a result of executing the transaction (INSERT, DELETE, and UPDATE operations).
e. Connecting remotely to the database.
Answer: e
11. Parsed and compiled SQL statements are stored in which one of the following places?
a. Library cache
b. Data dictionary cache c. Redo log buffer cache d. Database buffer cache Answer: a
12. Which of the following files stores information about the database, such as
names and locations of data and redo log files?
a. Data files
b. Redo log files c. Control files
d. Archive log files
e. Initialization parameter file
Answer: c
Rev. 0.21 SAG – 13
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
13. Which of the following is not part of the SGA?
a. Database buffer cache b. Redo log buffers
c. Private memory d. Shared Pool Answer: c
14. A collection of extents used for storage of a particular type of data within the database is called what?
a. Data block b. Extent
c. Segment d. Freelist
e. Tablespace
Answer: c
15. The following lists, in order, the steps involved in a database write operation. Choose the step that is out of sequence.
a. Oracle received user transaction (Insert, delete, or update)
b. Oracle creates rollback segment c. Oracle performs the update
d. Oracle releases the rollback segment e. Oracle issues a commit statement Answer: d
16. Tables, packages, synonyms, and indexes are best categorized as:
a. Schema objects
b. Physical data structures c. User views
d. Instance components
Answer: a
SAG – 14 Rev. 0.21
Self-Assessment Guide
17. Which of the following indexes contains information about the entire table,
regardless of table partitioning?
a. Composite index b. Local index
c. Simple index d. Global index Answer: d
18. Which of the following is not one of the major components of the three-tier
architecture?
a. Client
b. Application server c. Database server
d. Management repository
Answer: d
19. Which of the following is not included in the physical layer of an Oracle database?
a. Data files
b. Redo log files c. Tablespaces
d. Archive logs
Answer: c
Rev. 0.21 SAG – 15
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
Section 3 — Database Environments
The Database Environments module addresses the following topics:
? The two primary database environments: Online Transaction Processing
(OLTP) and data warehousing
? For each of these database environments:
• Predominant database activities
• Characteristics of the environment
• Tuning goals
• Most significant Oracle8i features benefiting the environment
1. Which one of the following database environments is characterized by low response times?
a. Online transaction processing b. Batch processing
c. Data warehousing d. Query processing Answer: a
2. Which of the following database environments is characterized by execution
of tasks responsible for maintenance, protection, and the well being of the system?
a. Online transaction processing b. Query processing
c. Decision support system
d. Backup and recovery processing e. Batch processing
Answer: b
3. Which is not an example of a typical transaction executed in an online transaction-processing environment?
a. Retrieve a customer’s account information given an account number
b. Update the price of a product
c. Update the sales tax rate for customers in a certain state d. Insert a history record into an audit trail
Answer: c
SAG – 16 Rev. 0.21
Self-Assessment Guide
4. Decision support systems create a heavy stream of writes to the transaction
log.
? True
? False
Answer: False
5. Which one of the following is not an important tuning goal and strategy for
OLTP environment?
a. Dedicate the system to OLTP
b. Ensure proper backup and recovery
c. Optimize the CPU, memory and disk subsystems
d. Tune for high processor usage and high concurrency
Answer: b
6. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of data stored in a data warehouse?
a. Time aware
b. Data is frequently updated c. Consolidated
d. Subject-oriented
Answer: b
7. Data warehouses typically contain global information necessary to support tactical goals rather than strategic goals of the company.
? True
? False
Answer: False
8. A data mart has all but one of the following characteristics:
a. Servers a narrow user community b. Meets a specific goal
c. Data is often derived from the online transactions d. Data is specialized to meet specific content goals Answer: c
Rev. 0.21 SAG – 17
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
9. Which one of the following is not an important tuning goal for data
warehousing environments?
a. Allocate minimal temporary work space
b. Use highest-performance hardware available
c. Start with one or two high-performance processors d. Optimize all major hardware subsystems
Answer: a
10. Which one of the following is not an Oracle8i features that supports data warehousing?
a. Online index rebuilds b. Partitioning
c. Summary queries
d. Advanced join methods.
Answer: c
Self-Assessment Guide
Section 4 — System Processor Planning
This module addresses the following topics:
? Advantages and disadvantages associated with different processing platforms
? How database environment impacts processor requirements
? Processor sizing considerations
1. Memory intensive environments scale much better than disk-intensive environments.
? True
? False
Answer: True
2. CPU scalability depends on numerous factors. Which one of the following is
not a factor in CPU scalability?
a. RDBMS architecture
b. Application environment c. Database design
d. SQL Functions
Answer: d
3. Which statement correctly interprets the slope, as it pertains to evaluation of processor scalability?
a. Rate at which performance increases with the addition of processors
b. The equation ?= y/x, where y = number of processor and x =
processors
c. Difference between optimal scalability compared to actual scalability
d. A lower slope value indicates a higher degree of scalability
Answer: c
4. You can expect low-scalability ratios in online transaction processing environments, and high-scalability ratios in batch processing environments.
? True
? False
Answer: False
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
5. Which statement is false?
a. Environments characterized by higher levels of concurrency typically require increased concurrent processing capability
b. An optimally configured and tuned system yields true linear scalability
c. A true linear curve represents where performance is directly proportional to the number of processors.
d. Environments that are characterized by lower levels of concurrency typically require faster processing capability
Answer: b
6. Which of the following is an effective way to achieve speedup?
a. Introduce concurrency b. Add more memory
c. Increase the number of disk controllers d. Decrease the system workload
Answer: a
7. To calculate the degree of scaleup, the amount of work is held constant and the time differential is measured.
? True
? False
Answer: False
Self-Assessment Guide
Section 5 — Memory Planning
The System Processor planning module addresses the following topics:
? Memory sizing process
? Initial memory recommendations
? Primary considerations for memory planning
? Operating system memory requirements
? Oracle memory requirements
1. Which of the following is not a fundamental step in the memory sizing process?
a. Estimate the amount of memory for the Oralce8i server b. Monitor memory allocation
c. Monitor overall database performance d. Resize SGA as necessary
Answer: d
2. How much memory does Oracle recommend for a minimal installation?
a. 128MB b. 96MB c. 48MB d. 64MB Answer: b
3. Which of the following best describes a primary factor of consideration for
memory planning?
a. Virtual memory requirements b. Buffer pool requirements
c. SGA requirements
d. Third-party application requirements
Answer: d
4. Oracle cannot directly access physical memory.
? True
? False
Answer: True
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
5. Select the correct statement.
a. The DB_BLOCK_BUFFER determines the size of each database block. The data block size defaults to 2K, with a valid range of 2-16K.
b. Online transaction processing environments require larger block sizes.
c. The DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS parameter, together with the DB_BLOCK_SIZE parameter, determines the total size of the buffer cache.
d. Use DB_BLOCK_SIZE to control the size of the buffer cache, after database creation.
Answer: c
SAG – 22 Rev. 0.21
Self-Assessment Guide
Section 6 — Disk Subsystem Planning and Design
The Disk Subsystem Planning and Design module addresses the following topics:
? Basics of I/O workload
? I/O request patterns of typical applications
? How the complexity of an application’s data retrieval impacts performance
? Typical disk subsystem design for high I/O capacity and high bandwidth configurations
? How RAID affects performance.
? How disk caching affects performance.
? The Enhanced Command Interface (ECI) driver, its limitations and uses.
? Steps in planning for random I/O.
? Steps in planning for sequential I/O.
? Disk subsystem design that preserves Oracle’s sequential I/O.
? Methods for balancing I/O among multiple array controllers.
1. Application retrieval complexity relates to the number and types of operations performed on data as it is read from storage subsystem into memory.
? True
? False
Answer: True
2. Which one of the following RAID levels causes the controller to perform at least four I/O operations for every write request?
a. RAID 0 b. RAID 1 c. RAID 3 d. RAID 5
e. RAID 1 plus Spare
Answer: d
3. A typical Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) environment produces a high bandwidth I/O request pattern.
? True
? False
Answer: False
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
4. Which database environment is most frequently characterized by simple data
retrieval patterns?
a. Decision support system b. Data mart
c. Data warehouse
d. Online Transaction Processing
Answer: d
5. Select the correct statement regarding application performance and application complexity.
a. Raw performance in the data-warehousing environment is measured by
I/O request per second.
b. High application complexity results in higher overall performance.
c. Raw performance and application complexity are diametrically opposite.
d. Raw performance in the transaction-processing environment is measured by the data transfer rate.
Answer: c
6. High bandwidth applications require a higher (controller-to-disk ratio) than a high I/O application.
? True
? False
Answer: True
7. If you have eight disk drives configured in a RAID 5 volume, how much capacity do you lose due to the RAID 5 overhead?
a. One disk drive worth of space
b. Two disk drives worth of space (25%)
c. Three disk drives worth of space d. Four disk drives worth of space
e. It is impossible to tell since the disk controller dynamically creates the parity information
Answer: a
8. Select the incorrect statement regarding the effects of disk caching on
performance.
a. Disk caching reduces disk access.
b. Disk caching slightly increases the negative effects of RAID overhead.
c. Disk caching assists in disk I/O request sorting and queuing.
d. Compaq supports array controllers that feature configurable disk cache.
Answer: b
9. If the I/O profile is predominantly sequential, configure the disk cache for write caching only. Read-ahead cache in this case would be ineffective.
? True
? False
Answer: False
10. Select the false statement about the Enhanced Command Interface (ECI)
device driver.
a. The ECI device driver can achieve better performance than other drivers
in instances where the system is processor bound.
b. The ECI device driver does not support the Compaq Insight Manager.
c. The performance gain associated with the ECI device driver results from its lower processing overhead.
Donwload Free PassGuide Braindumps-The Most Realistic Practice Questions and Answers,Help You Pass any Examsd. The ECI diver is supported for use with the Compaq RAID Array
4000/4100 and HSJ/HSG/HSZ Array controllers.
Answer: d
11. Of the four major components that comprise disk access time (queue time, seek time, rotational latency, and transfer time), select the most important in planning for high random I/O performance.
a. Queue time and rotational latency b. Seek time only
c. Seek time and rotational latency d. Transfer time and queue time Answer: c
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
12. Of the four major components that comprise disk access time (queue time,
seek time, rotational latency, and transfer time), select the most important in planning for sequential I/O performance.
a. Transfer time only b. Seek time only
c. Seek time and rotational latency d. Transfer time and queue time Answer: a
13. Select the false statement regarding separating sequential and random I/O.
a. Combining redo logs with other data components that generate disk I/O
does not degrade performance noticeably, if proper tuning is performed.
b. Place redo logs away from all other data components that generate physical disk I/O to preserve the sequentiality of their access.
c. Redo log files can reside on the same disks with the operating system and Oracle binaries.
d. Sequentially accessing two files residing on the same disk concurrently produces random I/O.
Answer: a
14. Disk striping in Oracle is used to help reduce disk I/O contention and if not
used properly, can introduce more single points of failure—resulting in a loss
of data.
? True
? False
Answer: True
Section 7 — Network Planning and Design
The Network Planning and Design module addresses the following topics:
? Important networking considerations relevant to Oracle8i.
? The distributed database environment and the impact it has on network planning and design.
? Network performance considerations for the Oracle8i environment.
1. Select the correct statement.
a. Net8 describes an Oracle-specific networking protocol, like IPX/SPX is
to Novell.
b. The Oracle connection manager enables clients to connect to an Oracle server without requiring a configuration file on the client.
c. An Oracle Names server provides a centralized location where changes
to the connection configuration are stored.
d. Oracle Connection Manager uses repeaters to reduce the number of network connections to the database.
Answer: c
2. The alias, called a service name, is mapped to a network address in a connect descriptor.
? True
? False
Answer: True
3. Which of the following is not an Oracle recognized naming method?
a. Centralized naming b. Local naming
c. Node naming
d. External naming
Answer: c
4. The dispatcher is a single process or task, setup specifically to receive network connection request on behalf of the application.
? True
? False
Answer: False
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
Section 8 — Oralce8i Sizers
This module addresses the following topics:
? Acquisition of the Oracle System Sizers for decision support systems (DSS)
and transaction processing (OLTP) environments.
? Interview process for sizing the system environment.
? Application of the sizer output to assist in selecting the right Compaq
ProLiant server.
1. Which of the following is not information requested by the Decision Support
System Sizer?
a. Storage requirements b. Estimated throughput c. Query mix
d. Availability requirements
Answer: d
2. Which of the following does not comprise transaction load?
a. Database connections
b. End user response time c. Transaction rate
d. Concurrrent users e. Query mix Answer: e
3. The product of the interview process is a sorted solution set.
? True
? False
Answer: True
4. Where can you acquire the Oracle Sizer tools?
a. Oracle Technet
b. Compaq ActiveAnswers c. Customer service
d. Channel reseller
Answer: b
Self-Assessment Guide
5. Which screen displays the number of tape sets, gigabytes stored on each tape
set, and number of tapes required?
a. Secondary Storage Requirements Screen b. Tape Backup Systems Screen
c. Preferences Screen
d. Server Family Selection Screen
Answer: b
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
Section 9 — Operating System Tuning in a Database
Environment
This module addresses the following topics:
? The three major subsystems requiring operating system level tuning
? Monitoring processing time variables
? Enhancing throughput for network applications
? Minimizing Windows NT paging
? Monitoring virtual memory
1. To avoid paging at the operating level, which of the following is the best
solution?
a. Add more memory b. Add another node
c. Add more physical memory
d. Increase memory parameters in Init.ora
Answer: c
2. If the system is tuned appropriately, bottlenecks will not occur.
? True
? False
Answer: False
3. Which one of the following is not a major tuning focus?
a. Memory b. Processor c. Disk
d. Network
Answer: d
Self-Assessment Guide
4. Choose the correct statement.
a. Process/%Processor Time — Represents the time spent running user- level or application code. If this percentage is high, determine if any unnecessary or excessive usage exists.
b. % Total User Time — Represents the amount of time spent executing non-idle threads. This being either Privileged mode code or User mode code.
c. Processor/%Processor or System/%Total Processor Time — Represents the percentage of the total time that this process has spent running instructions on the processor. This counts for both user mode
instructions and hardware interrupt calls.
d. System/% Total Privileged Time — Represents the amount of time used by the kernel. If this percentage is high, a lot of disk activity is most
likely the cause.
Answer: d
5. Which one of the following is not a counter that indicates the state of virtual memory?
a. Commit Limit
b. Commit Available c. Committed Bytes
d. Committed Memory
Answer: d
Rev. 0.21 SAG – 31
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
Section 10 — Oralce8i Tuning
The Oracle8i Tuning module addresses the following topics:
? Monitoring and tuning the shared pool and its component structures.
? Optimizing the redo log buffer configuration.
? Identifying considerations associated with tuning the database buffer cache.
? Improving sorting performance by tuning the sort area.
? Monitoring and tuning rollback segments.
? Regulating checkpoint frequency and speed for optimal performance.
? Improving full table scan performance by tuning multiblock I/O.
? Employing process slaves to enhance throughput
? Discussing available monitoring and tuning tools
1. Which is not a component that you would monitor to determine if you need
to resize the shared pool?
a. Library cache
b. Data dictionary cache
c. Shared pool used memory d. User global area
Answer: c
2. Select the best recommendation for tuning the redo log.
a. Keep the number of retries to less than 10% of the redo entries.
b. Increase the redo log buffer size in multiples of the page file size.
c. Optimize the rollback process.
d. Move files to faster/striped disks.
Answer: d
3. Which of the following scenarios would you not increase the DB_BLOCK BUFFERS?
a. To add blocks to the buffer cache
b. If the cache hit ratio is less than 90%
c. If the application characteristics warrant it d. If the SGA is memory bound
Answer: d
Self-Assessment Guide
4. Proper tuning of the database buffer cache ensures that adequate cache exists
for the server process to find required data blocks in memory, instead of having to make physical I/Os.
? True
? False
Answer: True
5. Which of the following is not a type of buffer pool?
a. Keep pool
b. Recycle pool c. Reuse pool
d. Default pool
Answer: c
6. Which statement best describes what the SORT_AREA_SIZE parameter specifies?
a. Maximum amount of memory in the SGA available for server processes
b. Maximum amount of memory in the PGA available for background processes
c. Maximum amount of memory in the UGA available for background processes
d. Maximum amount of memory in the PGA available for server processes
Answer: d
7. Which of the following will not directly increase the speed of checkpoints?
a. Optimizing the number of disk spindles b. Increasing DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS
c. Separating the I/O
d. Increasing value of DB_BLOCK_CHECKPOINT_BATCH
Answer: b
8. Database environments with a large volume of update operations (INSERT, DELETE, or UPDATE transactions) greatly benefit from the addition of rollback segments.
? True
? False
Answer: True
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
9. Using multiblock I/O refers to the optimization of what type of data access?
a. Random
b. Sequential c. Direct
d. Parallel
Answer: b
10. Which of the following best describes the monitoring and tuning tool produced by Oracle that provides SQL scripts to capture a snapshot of system-wide database performance statistics?
a. BSTAT/ESTAT
b. Oracle Performance Manager c. Oracle TopSessions
d. Oracle Expert
Answer: a
11. Which statement best describes the reason for using of I/O process slaves?
a. To parallel I/O operations
b. To improve the performance of server processes c. To distribute processing overhead
d. To create process redundancy
Answer: a
Self-Assessment Guide
Section 11 — OFS and Compaq High Availability Solutions
This module addresses the following topics:
? Previous and current Oracle Fail Safe offerings.
? Oracle Fail-Safe components.
? Oracle Fail Safe architecture and its integration with Microsoft Cluster Server and Compaq high-availability solutions.
? Installation and configuration process of Oracle Fail-Safe.
? Capacity planning issues associated with Oracle Fail-Safe.
? Tuning of Oracle Fail-Safe.
? Explain how to develop Oracle Fail Safe applications capable of automatic and transparent failover.
1. OFS 2.x required no clustering software, such as MSCS.
? True
? False
Answer: True
2. Which is best described as a main component of Oracle Fail-Safe?
a. Cluster node
b. Oracle Fail Safe server
c. Oracle Fail Safe console d. Oracle Fail Safe group Answer: b
3. A cluster typically has a private network used to communicate the state of
each cluster node, which is sometimes called the:
a. Private network b. iFS
c. P-LAN
d. cluster interconnect
Answer: d
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
4. Installation and configuration of clusters for fail safe must be performed in a
structured order. Which step is out of sequence?
a. Install and configure Microsoft Windows NT on both cluster nodes.
b. Install and configure Oracle8i for Microsoft Windows NT on both cluster nodes.
c. Install and configure Microsoft Cluster Server on both cluster nodes.
d. Create fail safe groups.
Answer: b
5. What is the primary purpose of capacity planning for Oracle Fail Safe
Clusters?
a. To ensure adequate resources for I/O operations b. To ensure adequate physical memory resources
c. To ensure adequate memory resources for potential new users
d. To ensure adequate resources available to host the oracle instance
Answer: d
6. Which one of the following is not a feature of fast-start fault recovery?
a. Fast start checkpointing
b. Fast-start parallel roll forward c. Fast-start parallel rollback
d. Fast-start on-demand rollback
Answer: b
7. Cluster aware applications automatically:
a. Reconnect to a different virtual database upon failure.
b. Resubmit committed transactions back to the database server.
c. Re-execute write-only transactions that were interrupted by the failure.
d. Check the status of submitted transactions for which the application has not received a confirmation.
Answer: d
Self-Assessment Guide
Section 12 — Compaq Backup and Recovery Options for
Oracle8i
The Compaq Backup and Recovery Options for Oracle8i module addresses the following topics:
? Various data protection concepts—such as transaction protection and instance recovery, fault tolerance, and database backup and recovery.
? Different backup and recovery options for Compaq Oracle8i.
? Tape device technologies—from the reliability, performance, capacity, and cost perspective.
? Techniques designed to increase overall backup throughput.
? Estimating backup throughput, data compression ratio, and redo log and database backup sizes.
? Performance implications of database backups across the network.
1. Proper fault tolerance mitigates data loss in which one of the following situations.
a. Flood
b. Power loss c. Virus
d. Bad disk
Answer: d
2. A node fails and resources are failed over to the surviving node so that access
is preserved. This type of failover is commonly referred to as:
a. Cold b. Warm c. Hot
d. Restart
Answer: a
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
3. Which of the following provides a continuous data access for SCSI-based
RA7000/ESA1000 and Fibre Channel-based RA8000/ESA12000 solution deployed in Windows NT environments:
a. Online Storage Controller Recovery Option (OSCRO)
b. Compaq Secure Path
c. Compaq Redundancy Manager
d. Compaq StorageWorks Data Replication Manager
Answer: c
4. Which of the following files contain database data necessary for instance recovery?
a. Data files b. Redo files
c. Control files
d. Parameter files
Answer: b
5. If the automatic redo log archiving is enabled, Oracle begins copying the redo log into an archive redo log immediately before the redo log fills.
? True
? False
Answer: False
6. Which is not a type of database backup?
a. Full
b. Archive
c. Tablespace d. Staged Answer: d
Self-Assessment Guide
7. Which of the following is not true regarding remote backups?
a. Data is moved over a shared or dedicated network path to a remote server.
b. The remote server can act as a backup server for other database and non-database servers.
c. The backup strategy will be limited by the type of backup devices
d. Each database server requires its own backup storage, either a tape or disk device.
Answer: d
8. Which is not true about data compression:
a. Hardware compresses less than software.
b. Software compresses faster than hardware. c. Tape drive performs better when streaming.
d. Software data compression increases processor and memory utilization.
Answer: a
9. Which is not an important consideration for parallel backups to independent devices?
a. Multiple backup devices b. Oracle channels
c. Sequential access to data source d. Backup and Recovery Schedule Answer: d
10. Redundant information for backup applications is supported only by:
a. RAID 0, RAID 5 b. RAID 0, RAID 1 c. RAID 4, RAID 1 d. RAID 1, RAID 5
Answer: d
Compaq/Oracle8i Integration and Performance with Microsoft Windows NT
11. Which of the following statements is the most accurate?
a. All servers directly connected to the Fibre Channel loop must be running similar versions of the operating system.
b. The Enterprise Backup Solution does not support the PCI version of the
Fibre Channel Host Controller.
c. The Fibre Channel Tape Controller supports only differential SCSI.
d. Compaq limits the number of tape devices attached to the Fibre Channel
Tape Controller to four.
Answer: c
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